Did the government have control over the economy during the industrial revolution?

or was it more ';laissez faire';


because workers were being treated poorly


no labour laws or anything


so the government was just letting what happened happen right?Did the government have control over the economy during the industrial revolution?
You are quite right, it was mostly laissez faire.





The monetary policy and fiscal policy tools began evolving only after the Industrial Revolution.Did the government have control over the economy during the industrial revolution?
yes laissez faire.





Though the society was sharply divided between a small wealthy class at the top and the poor destitute largesse at the bottom before the indl revolution. The middle class which arose as a result of the industrial revolution championed for the rights of the poor, for banning slavery (in UK), regulating child labour etc.





yes govt was largely just enforcement of laws. Initially there were no labour laws etc. they did happen over time due to people's movements for them
Yes, but it had good points as well as bad points.





Many of my students cite government corruption as one of the reasons for the poverty of Africa.


I tell them that the Governments of early 19th century Britain and America were just as corrupt as a modern African government. But they didn't control so much of their economies.
The Government did not control the economy during the Industrial Revolution - you are correct in saying that the policy was one of 'laissez faire'. Labour laws were increasingly introduced during the 19th century, to control things like child and female labour.